Flop raising
I cannot get an answer to this question anywhere so I would really appreciate a little help and thanks for any replys. So I'm on the flop with the nut flush draw after calling villains pre flop raise.villain continuation bets £10 into £20 which gives me 3/1 pot odds=25% correct?Assuming I take my nine outs which gives me roughly 18% I am not getting the odds to continue. The videos I watch on this and experts advice is to raise in this situation to see a turn AND river so you get 36% and therefore you now have the +EV you need to continue.lets say we are £200 effective stack and I shove over villains continuation bet and they call, does this suggest the 36% now means nothing?have I now made a mistake or is this a good situation that I am hoping to be in?or am I just too stupid, thanks
6 Replies
C
You're oversimplifying things. You're just talking about the odds that you hit your flush draw. Sometimes ace high might be good and win at showdown. Sometimes you might hit an ace and win with a pair of aces. Sometimes you will semi-bluff by raising and win when your opponent folds a better hand.
Generally you don't want to get your stack all-in without a hand that will win the majority of the time if the amount of chips already in the middle of the pot is small in comparison to your stack. It's different if the pot is big because then you're often getting good "pot odds."
I don't think anyone sane is saying to jam over a cb with just a flush draw, at least in cash. They are likely saying make a normal raise, which at least has some logic in it where:
a) villain might fold there and then
b) villain may just call then not bet turn, so we are able to better dictate the price to see the river
c) it conceals our hand if we do hit on the turn, as for all they know we simply still like whatever we were raising the flop with
Yes I kinda figured this not that i could advise anyone but if villain calls the raise did I just give myself a worse price to hit?they give me a price of 3/1 (25%)but if I raise villains 10 dollar bet to 30,that means I'm now putting in 30 to win 50 when they call so now I need to hit roughly 35ish % to break even. I guess at this stage I'm just hoping for a fold or a call check to realise my full equity .ive never fully understood this but if I get confirmation that this is how it's done that is all i need
Yes I kinda figured this not that i could advise anyone but if villain calls the raise did I just give myself a worse price to hit?they give me a price of 3/1 (25%)but if I raise villains 10 dollar bet to 30,that means I'm now putting in 30 to win 50 when they call so now I need to hit roughly 35ish
The thing you may be missing is the implied odds when villain calls your raise. Your raise has three things going for it in and of itself:
1. Your opponent might fold and you win the pot. Calling doesn’t give you this possibility.
2. Your opponent will likely think you have a strong hand and as a result will be less likely to bluff or bet a marginal hand on the turn. If he does get the turn you can be pretty sure he has a strong hand and you can reevaluate the situation
3. You build a bigger pot for those occasions where you do hit your draw if villain calls the raise.
This call indicates that villain likely has at least a decent hand and will be more likely to pay off a bet on a future street if you hit your draw. This phenomenon is called implied odds and is the reason we often can play draws in NLHE at all. You cant be sure you’ll get paid but if you think in your example that villain would call a $100 bet on the river, you can effectively add this $100 to the direct pot odds. Generally if you just call, the amount that an opponent will pay off will be smaller.
Thanks for help.im just learning the reasoning behind plays and the advantages of these plays instead of randomly throwing in raises for the heck of it.
