Neeme, Owen and Polk buy stakes in "The Lodge" poker room, Austin TX (Lodge containment thread)

I hope you are not in TX. If you are watch out. You are spinning so much you will soon strike oil.

There is no hand until the river.

You cannot win BBJP on flop. The losing hand must lose the pot because it def does not lose the BBJP. So the words are completely clear. Winning and losing must refer to the hand/pot.

even when the hand has to be flopped ?

all regulated card rooms require to use two cards ,which they both clearly do.

I pay about 6$ an hour to play in Oklahoma casinos and they pay me like 3$ an hour to play there and there is a standard juicy bbjp 100% of the time. Lodge base is 11/hour + a membership fee

"free jackpot" costs like 4x as much as jackpots a state away, but alright

i feel like I'm listening to the poker version of 'who's on first'

Is there rake / promo drop or is it just a time charge?

Wtf you only pay 6 dollars an hour to play? That's incredible.

Is that bc time is that cheap? Or is it bc these are rake games and you're a huge nit?

Congrats on the anomaly but I’m still waiting for the part where you show what I said was incorrect. The hourly fee and membership fee didn’t change after the bad beat went active. I never said free, but it’s way better than the other 99% of rooms in the country that drop $1 or $2 every single hand for the BBJ.

Yet it is the requirement in the rules.

Yes it's nitpicking on the wording within the t&c's but they should be very clear, and they are not.

I believe you can interpret every rule in a way that would favour the players claiming the BBJ.

I think I actually agree with you that the rule is unclear and could be interpreted either way. In particular, the first rule:

The qualifier in 4-card Omaha is a Straight Flush (flop only).

…the phrase “flop only” makes it sound like the qualifier for the BBJP should be evaluated on the flop, and the turn and river should be entirely irrelevant to whether the BBJP was hit.

Otherwise, the phrase “flop only” in the first rule is entirely redundant of the third rule.

The entire rule would actually be much more clear (and clear that this hand does -not- qualify) if the ambiguous “flop only” were just removed from the first sentence.

So which hand loses the bbjp? Both make five figures. Doesn’t seem to be a loser on the flop.

Even if you are drawing dead, you can’t lose a hand until last card is dealt because that last card could be a duplicate which voids the hand.

Feel free to keep spinning but the rule you must play your best hand voids this jp.

No, you must flop the cards you play. But if the hand doesn’t reach river, no jp gets paid. What if turn and river were both 7c? The hand is voided and no jp.

You don’t get to follow only some of the rules.

What if turn and river were both 7c, the same card?

Where in the rules does it say you must flop the cards you play?

You don't get to just add in different wording of the rules to make it fit.

Because to win the bbj you actually need to lose the pot. You cannot win the bbj by winning the hand.

OK. Your statement is correct. Doesn't change anything all of what you said happened.

Bad Beat inception

Rules clearly state you must make the sf on the flop. Since you must use two hold cards you must use exactly three community cards. Thus you must use the three cards on the flop.

But since you also must play hand to completion. And you must play your best hand. When A comes on river that players best hand changes.

You also chose to not address what happens if a duplicate card hits the river. It voids the hand. No hand no BBJP. So obviously if you apply ALL the rules at showdown this i

I also chose not to address what would happen if someone decided to piss on the table flipping over the burn cards and catching the dealer in the eye,
because it's a hypothetical that has absolutely nothing to do with what happened.

The wording of the rules are ambiguous in mine and many others opinions

In all your arguments you suggest they imply things, but t&c's by nature should be crystal clear and nothing implied.

If you find two of the same card in the deck, the deck is fouled and the hand is void. In this case, there isn’t really a “turn” or “river”, there isn’t hand at all.

Hypothetical for the "but it says flop only" crowd.

Preflop: Folds to BTN who limps, SB/BB complete.
Flop TJQddd. SB has 98dd, BB has AKdd.
Everybody checks flop
SB/BB eventually get it in on the turn/river

Are you ok with this being voided for the BB since it's "flop only" and the pot minimum of $20 wasn't met on the flop? Kinda doubt it.

And there is no BBJP awarded.

Yes, but if the deck is fouled, regardless of when, there was no hand at all. Which means there was no flop, and no one ever even flopped a BBJP eligible hand.

To be clear this is the wording

"In order for a hand to be eligible for a Bad Beat, the pot must contain a minimum of twenty dollars ($20)."

I think this needs addressing as well. It should be crystal clear. It's not.

I’m relying on the rules that someone posted here. They don’t say anything about a $20 minimum, so I don’t know how to answer that question.