Range (dis/)advantage vs hands
Hi guys! I have a question. Looking at range interactions in flopzilla, when one player has a big range advantage on the flop, I can't make sense of the gaps I see in the equities of individual hands shared by both ranges. I get (I think) that individual hands interact with the opponent's range, and so it makes sense that X hand within the advantaged range has more equity than the same hand within the disadvantaged range, but that's about the extent of my understanding. In the example I share with you, for instance, I have no clue as to why TT has 20% more equity when the player has a range advantage, versus 7% for 66.
Preflop ranges are from GTOw. It's a 3-bet pot ; SB vs BU ; flop is AsQh5d (SB has 58.5% equity). The hands I circled in the image are the best (55, AQs) and worst (87s) hands ; top (AJs), middle (KQs) and bottom (65s) pairs ; a frontdoor draw (KJs) ; the best (TT) and worst (66) pocket pairs.
And the gaps in the equities are :
Best hands
55 : 1.65%
AQ : -0.69%
Worst hand
87 : 3.58%
Top, middle and bottom pairs
AJ : 3.89% (80/85)
KQ : 11.2% (55/70)
65 : 4.28% (15/50)
Frontdoor draw
KJ : 7.07% (25/55)
Best and worst pocket pair
TT : 19.78% (40/55)
66 : 6.88% (10/15)
In parenthesis I included where some hands are placed in the range. I think it's their percentile, but I'm not sure! My math classes are a bit far 
But, for instance, 65s is better than approximately 15% of range when the player has range advantage, and better than 50% of range when the player has range disadvantage. I thought there could be something there, but it doesn't seem so. If anything it confused me a bit more!
I'm mainly interested in TT (best pocket) and KQ (middle pair). What's up with TT that's not up with 66? and what's up with KQ that's not up with AJ/65??
Thank you!
P.S. Before posting, I had a quick look at the interaction for a flop that makes the ranges pretty much equal (Qh7c6s), and the gaps in the equities were a look smaller, for all categories of hand. I think that was to be expected though, so I don't include it here!
Annexes
1. Full screenshot for SB (range advantage)
Spoiler
2. Full screenshot for BU (range disadvantage)
Spoiler
6 Replies
Do you know what "equity" means in this context?
Say we're playing AKQ game.
If my range is A,K and your range is K,Q:
My K has 75% equity, whereas your K has 25% equity.
Say we're playing AKQ game.
If my range is A,K and your range is K,Q:
My K has 75% equity, whereas your K has 25% equity.
Should clarify what the AKQ game is. Did you each draw from different decks or from the same 12 card deck? If the later you have to look at, in poker terms, "blockers" as well so equities would be off a bit.
Should clarify what the AKQ game is. Did you each draw from different decks or from the same 12 card deck? If the later you have to look at, in poker terms, "blockers" as well so equities would be off a bit.
Ya whatever works for the example. You get my point and I hope OP gets it too
I googled it and according to upswing poker, equity ''refers to the share of the pot that belongs to a player if there were no more actions to be made and the rest of the cards are dealt.''. I would have said something along those lines, except I wasn't really aware that ''the rest of the cards are dealt''. I'm not sure why it's important though 
Say we're playing AKQ game.
If my range is A,K and your range is K,Q:
My K has 75% equity, whereas your K has 25% equity.
If I understand correctly, if my range is A/K, my K has 75% equity because it splits (50%) against your K and wins (100%) against your Q ; whereas if your range is K/Q, your K has 25% equity because it splits (50%) against my K and loses (0%) against my A.
And so, SB's TT equity is relatively high because BU doesn't have much A or Q, and BU's TT equity is much lower because SB have a lot of A or Q? Basically?
That would make sense! I tried adding AKo in BU's range, which caused TT in SB's range to lose 7% equity. Feel free to correct me if that's not it
Thank you!
I googled it and according to upswing poker, equity ''refers to the share of the pot that belongs to a player if there were no more actions to be made and the rest of the cards are dealt.''. I would have said something along those lines, except I wasn't really aware that ''the rest of the cards are dealt''. I'm not sure why it's important though
Yes that's correct. Maybe a little more intuitive for you is to see it like this: TT having 33.57% equity means that, assuming your opponent arrives at the flop with the range you posted, that if you have TT you will win 33.57% of the time on average if let's say no player can make any actions and the two remaining cards are dealt (to be more precise the equity in % is the % of times you win by the river vs opp range + 0.5 * the % of times you tie by the river vs opp range).
So this should make it clear why the same hand can have different equities vs different ranges.
