Why does the solver prefer to call with club hands on a missed club flush draw board?
Hand was played as seen in the game tree as the BB called with A10 of clubs vs a BTN 3x raise. I decided the solve the hand after as I didn't know what to do in the spot.
My question is, why does the solver prefer to call the all in bet with club hands rather than non club hands.
Surely you would not want to have the clubs in your hand as that would block the missed club flushdraw hands that would shove all in as a bluff on the river? What am I missing here?
3 Replies
The bet sizes are posted without context, so there's no way for us to know exactly how the hand played out.
In general, post the hh or make one up. Include all the details, particularly betsizes (per % of pot) are always very important.
That said, I'll take a stab. First off, it's mixed, so calling ATss isn't a mistake. The frequency disparity is probably because IP isn't supposed to bluff with our cards very much (particularly the A♣) so when we get there, unblocking his bluffs and blocking the straight, the solver is slightly prefering the A♣. It'll be something that; you need to explore IP's jam range.
But to reiterate, the solver solution OTR is going to be quite complex with lots of assumptions about split ranges and variables. If at any point we or they are misplaying their range, which is nearly always the case, these minor differences are usually irrelevant. Although it's always fun to try and figure out ofc.
Isn't one reason that there are better hands for v to bluff shove on river than missed fds?
Thanks for the reply. The hand went as follows:
(effective stack 100bbs)
Flop
BB check
Btn bet 50% pot
BB call
Turn
BB check
Btn bet 75% pot
BB call
River
BB check
BTN shoves all in
I looked at my opponents range on the river, and your right, they aren't really shoving with the ace of clubs at all really.
So im guessing its simply preferred as it blocks QT and unblocks some prevalent bluff jams that my opponent has such as T9 of diamonds and T9 of spades.
