Is it a Dealer's Obligation to State a Player's Tabled Hand?

Is it a Dealer's Obligation to State a Player's Tabled Hand?

P1 bets on the river. P2 calls. P1 shows his cards. Does the dealer have an obligation to state P1’s hand without being

01 June 2025 at 03:09 PM
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33 Replies


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by chillrob

I believe that was the case at Bellagio until several years ago.But I never heard that you had to declare "board" to play it. I'm sure that anyplace where you tabled your hand, you would be credited with the best hand possible, including playing the board if that was the best. Declaring "board" was only necessary if you didn't table your hole cards.That would be a terrible rule

I have seen players muck their hands a number of times in tournaments when their opponent was playing the board. Not once were they awarded a chop. And it only went to the Floor one time.

If anyone has seen it go the other way in a cash game or in a tournament please post!


If I recall correctly, RROP said that you had to declare you were playing the board before discarding your hole cards. I don't think I've ever seen this done.


by chillrob

But I never heard that you had to declare "board" to play it. I'm sure that anyplace where you tabled your hand, you would be credited with the best hand possible, including playing the board if that was the best. Declaring "board" was only necessary if you didn't table your hole cards.That would be a terrible rule otherwise, and I don't remember RROP having any terrible rules

Yes, it applies to the situation where a player doesn't table his cards:

[quote=RRoP: SECTION 5 - HOLDEM: 9]You must declare that you are playing the board before you throw your cards away.[/quote]

I didn't realize that venice was talking about a tabled hand. That's even nuttier!


by Mr Rick

I have seen players muck their hands a number of times in tournaments when their opponent was playing the board. Not once were they awarded a chop. And it only went to the Floor one time.

If anyone has seen it go the other way in a cash game or in a tournament please post!

I don't understand your point here; that doesn't contradict anything I said.


by albedoa

Yes, it applies to the situation where a player doesn't table his cards:

I didn't realize that venice was talking about a tabled hand. That's even nuttier!

He seems to be, but I think he must be mistaken.


by chillrob

I don't understand your point here; that doesn't contradict anything I said.

I wasn't trying to contradict anything you said. I am just curious if anyone has seen a tabled hand that was then turned over and mucked (and taken by the dealer and put in the muck pile) that was a winning hand on the river not counted as the winning hand.

by chillrob

He seems to be, but I think he must be mistaken.

I have never seen a tabled hand that was a winning hand and was then turned over and mucked not get pushed the pot.

However, one time many years ago in one of the two US casinos near Niagra Falls, I saw a player turn over his tabled hand and muck it. It wasn't the winning hand but the dealer said to the player "just be warned if you had the winning hand we wouldn't give you the pot if you muck it - even after tabling it". I then argued with the dealer telling him he was wrong because the hand had been tabled. The dealer told me he trained dealers there and that he was right. So I called the Floor over and the Floor backed the Dealer. So there is at least one casino where a mucked winning hand after its been tabled would not win or chop the pot.

I think that is the exception but the bigger problem is that if nobody else saw your tabled hand especially the dealer then you wouldn't win the pot.


Your earlier post just refers to mucked hands, not those that were tabled before mucking.

That sounds like a bad rule at the Niagara Falls casino, but I can't imagine it would come into play often enough to matter. I can't even think of this ever happening in a game I was playing.


by chillrob

Your earlier post just refers to mucked hands, not those that were tabled before mucking.

That sounds like a bad rule at the Niagara Falls casino, but I can't imagine it would come into play often enough to matter. I can't even think of this ever happening in a game I was playing.

I would put it on miscommunication, floor just backing dealer on a point where it cost nothing or there are missing details.

First of all a player should not even be able to muck his cards if dealer is protecting muck properly. Second never seen anywhere where cards don’t speak.


by Mr Rick

However, one time many years ago in one of the two US casinos near Niagra Falls, I saw a player turn over his tabled hand and muck it. It wasn't the winning hand but the dealer said to the player "just be warned if you had the winning hand we wouldn't give you the pot if you muck it - even after tabling it". I then argued with the dealer telling him he was wrong because the h

What's more funny about this (I'm sure you realize) is that in order to stay consistent, they have to define what a tabled-and-mucked hand is in contrast with a tabled-and-not-mucked hand. An obvious line is whether a player has traded his cards for some portion of the pot, but how confident are we that this particular room with this particular silly rule is staying consistent? How often do we see players who don't hang out on 2p2 actually wait for the pot before ditching their cards?

I agree that this dealer most likely was getting away with spouting BS.

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