Hyper Bounty Omaholic tournament - Final table last 3

Nothing weird preflop. Two words, "implied collusion."

Decades now into poker being played on a wide spread world, I assume that the two players know to legally implied collude to try and beat the third player in the pot. So nothing weird with V2 not raising preflop because he wants either himself or you to beat V1. And again nothing weird on the flop where he actually has a hand and bets it but would check down with less.

So V2's bet on the flop is him telling you he has a hand strong enough to knockout V1 and therefore unless you can beat a made hand, then fold.

Thanks, makes sense from V2 part.

So my fold on the flop was standard or any second thoughts? Given SPR of 0.66 and a bounty higher than the payjump?

Not sure implicit collusion applies here as there is a bounty on shortys head and the big stack has no reason to want to share that with us.

I would fold flop and see what happens next hand.

Payouts: First two places get paid 166$, third place gets 122$. ($44)

The progressive bounty I am assuming is for half the bounty on a player's head. ($28 if for half of bounty)

Therefore knocking out V1 by either is V2 or hero is worth more than the bounty. And even if hero win's V1's bounty. V2 still can beat hero for half of Hero's bounty total. In my opinion knocking out V1 is priority number one.

And in no way, shape or form did I say V2 wasn't trying to win outright win V1's bounty. V2 didn't raise preflop, but damn sure jammed on the flop when he had a hand instead of just tapping on the table and checking down to showdown.

Thank you both!

Bounty for V1 was exactly 56$ (which is half the bounties he had won in total up to that point). So knocking him out is more than the payjump.

I was trying to set the stage for what kind of tournament it was, but i think it boils down to a bounty calculation + ICM calculation.

on KJ5 with two hearts, with 3.4bb in the pot what odds do i need to call my last 2 bb holding 9876 no hearts considering:

A) Calling and winning outright gets +56 and assured second place (which pays exactly as much as 1st place). EV: +110$ (maybe one could add a bit more for the future chance of getting even V2's bounty later on, but we also ignore this in option D)

B) Calling and winning against V2, but losing against V1, no bounty, and i slightly worsen my chances of second place - V1 jumps to 3.4bb and I would have 4bb, so basically a tie and a flip the next 2-3 hands for second place. EV: +41$ (50% chance for the payjump, so +22 and some chance, let's say 33% to get the bounty still, so +19)

C) Calling and losing against V2, no bounty and potentially no payjump as well if V1 winst against V2. EV: +22$, assuming it is a flip between the two.

D) Folding: hard to make any assumption either than 50 / 50 who wins, maybe there is some indication why V2 is slightly more likely to win given his jam on the flop, but let us just say it is equally likely. If V2 wins, EV +44$ due to the payjump. If V1 wins he has 3.4bb and i have only 2, so he is slightly more likely to get second place, let us say EV +16$. So average EV +30$.

It would just be an equation of A% * 110 + B% * 41 + C% * 22 compared to 30.

If I assume say 25% odds to win against V2 in general, so this means C (losing against V2) is at 75% and it just goes 50 / 50 between A and B, then it would be 12,5%*110 + 12,5%*41 + 75% * 22 = 35,4. So enough to call.

If I assume only 20% chance to win against V2, i get 31,5, so still enough to call.

So anything above 18% equity against V2 (just against him, not to win the whole pot) is +EV.

- Do I have 18-20% equity against V2?
- Are there any (major) flaws in the EV calculation or assumptions above? I know in case D) i still have some chance of getting V1's bounty somehow, i I win twice in a row.